First of all, I have absolutely no background in astronomy and physics. I just watch a lot of "i-hope-scientific" youtube channels talking about physics and astrophysics and I can kind of follow the maths and concepts.
So, I was thinking, with absolutely no physics to support this:
REAL QUESTION STARTS HERE:
Say, the big bang happened everywhere, followed by inflation that never stopped. This is wat eternal inflation described (if i am correct)
Then, as eternal inflation goes on and more and more universe outside of the observable universe is created. Then there would be an unlimited amount of mass outside our observable universe.
Can this mass create an gravitational effect on the galaxies in our universe?
We are at the center of our observable universe, so the gravitational effect of all the mass outside our observable universe would never affects us. But from the perspective of another galaxy, it would be affected by a bit of universe that is outside our observable universe.
Then you might explain the effect that galaxies that are farther away from us move faster away from us. And that galaxies closer to use move slower away. Then you can explain this by saying that the galaxies farther away are closer to the "unlimited" mass outside our observable universe. And thus are more affected by this. And that galaxies close by are less affected.
The theory with dark energy claims that dark energy causes an outward push from the inside of our universe. Wouldn't this be indistinguishable from a gravitational pull from the outside?
Also, could this explain the red-shift we see in light from the far end of the observable universe? If I remember correct, gravity can red-shift light if the light moves away from the source of the gravitational pull (as seen near black holes). Light form the far end of the universe has moved trough the gravitational pull away from the "infinite mass" of the outside universe.
This was my idea, and I would like to see where I am thinking wrong.
One thing where I obviously might be thinking wrong is that this effect would be homogeneous throughout the universe and it should cancel out. But is this also true when you throw some relativity into the mix?