Andrew Michael Chuggs in his recent book The Pharos Lighthouse in Alexandria (Routledge 2024) goes into an excursus on the ancient astronomy of Eratosthenes. The author is a published historian whose previous books were met with considerable scepticism by experts for their outlandish claims. By training and vocation he's a professional engineer / scientist specialising in EM and ionising radiation. That's to say that he's not afraid of using some maths (unlike most historians), and I have no reason to think that there are any mistakes in his calculations, but there are reasons to be cynical of his more outlandish claims.
I want to ask about the methods he claims were probably used by Eratosthenes to calculate the Earth-Moon and Earth-Sun distance in 3rd Century BCE Alexandria. To the best of my knowledge, there is no direct evidence for any lenses in this period, except some very indirect hints that there might have been some primitive magnifying glasses. Mirrors of course existed, but there is no evidence for parabolic ones with a high enough polish to be optically useful. All measurements can therefore be assumed to be done with the naked eye.
My question is whether ancient astronomers would have been able to make the following measurements?
1:
Had Eratosthenes employed observations at two locations on the same meridian (line of longitude) like Alexandria and Syene, then simultaneity could have been confirmed by some particular star reaching its maximum elevation above the horizon (in the same way that the maximum elevation of the Sun in the skies at Syene and Alexandria indicated midday in the context of the measurement of the Earth’s circumference). These two locations were 5000 stades or 787.5km apart. Assuming that the Moon were somewhere near the zenith, it would have exhibited a parallax of about 0.002 radians or 0.12 degrees. Eratosthenes would then have calculated the distance to the Moon as 5000/0.002 = 2,500,000 stades or 390,000km, which is roughly correct.
Is measuring a parallax of 0.12 degrees with the naked eye plausible? This is harder than measuring an angular separation of 0.12 degrees: it requires two separate set of measurements to be made with respect to some other reference system, and the difference later computed.
2:
The solar parallax between the Earth and the Moon is about 0.0026 radians or 0.15 degrees, bigger than the parallax of the Moon between Alexandria and Syene. But how could Eratosthenes have accurately measured the direction of the Sun from the perspective of the Moon? The answer is, of course, that the line of division, known as the limb, between the hemisphere of the lunar surface that is sunlit and the hemisphere that lies in darkness does depend sensitively on the direction of the Sun with respect to the Moon (see Figure). There is a minor problem in that the solar disc has an angular width of half a degree as viewed from the Moon (just as from the Earth), but the Sun is so bright that there is still a fairly sharp drop off in the surface brightness of the Moon across the limb as the last sliver of the solar disc slips below the lunar horizon. It is just a question of allowing for the known angular width of the solar disc in the calculations. Another problem is that there is significant roughness or height variation and topography across the lunar surface due to craters and mountain ranges. However, fortunately, there are also some large and smooth ancient lava plains on the Moon that we call seas, so the location of the limb might be defined quite accurately where it crosses a lunar sea.
(There's a formula that goes with this in the text, maybe the same as in the image, but it's garbled beyond recognition in my ebook version)
Is measuring the angle defined by the limb on the Moon to within 0.15 degrees with the naked eye plausible? This seems extremely tenuous to me, not least of all for the reasons the author himself gives.